Surgery MCQs Set 3
51. How many standard plaster bandages are required for application of POP in an adult dog?
a) 1-2 b) 3-4 c) 5-6 d) 7-8
Correct Answer: b) 3-4
Explanation: For a medium-to-large adult dog, 3 to 4 standard plaster of Paris (POP) bandages are typically required to provide sufficient structural rigidity for a limb cast without making it excessively heavy.
52. Site for epidural anesthesia:
a) 1st and 2nd coccygeal vertebrae b) 2nd and 3rd coccygeal vertebrae c) 3rd and 4th coccygeal vertebrae d) Last sacral and 1st coccygeal vertebrae
Correct Answer: d) Last sacral and 1st coccygeal vertebrae
Explanation: Caudal epidural anesthesia in domestic animals is most commonly performed at the sacrococcygeal space (between the last sacral vertebra and the first coccygeal vertebra) to block sensation in the perineal region.
53. Physical effect by which the matrix of the graft forms a scaffold on which cells in the recipient are able to form new bone called:
a) Osteogenesis b) Osteoinduction c) Osteoconduction d) None of these
Correct Answer: c) Osteoconduction
Explanation: Osteoconduction occurs when the bone graft material serves as a physical scaffold or “framework” for the ingrowth of new host bone and blood vessels.
54. Tissue graft between individuals of the same species called:
a) Autograft b) Allograft c) Xenograft d) Alloplast
Correct Answer: b) Allograft
Explanation: An allograft (or homograft) is a tissue transfer between two genetically different individuals of the same species (e.g., dog to dog).
55. Tissue graft between two different species called:
a) Autograft b) Allograft c) Xenograft d) Alloplast
Correct Answer: c) Xenograft
Explanation: A xenograft (or heterograft) is a tissue graft transplanted between individuals of different species (e.g., porcine heart valve to human or bovine bone to dog).
56. Bone cells that build new bone tissue called:
a) Osteoblasts b) Osteoclasts c) Osteogenesis d) Osteocytes
Correct Answer: a) Osteoblasts
Explanation: Osteoblasts are the “builder” cells responsible for synthesizing the bone matrix and coordinating the mineralization of the skeleton.
57. Bone cells that maintain bone tissue called:
a) Osteoblasts b) Osteoclasts c) Osteogenesis d) Osteocytes
Correct Answer: d) Osteocytes
Explanation: Osteocytes are mature bone cells trapped within the mineralized matrix. They act as sensors to maintain the bone tissue and signal for remodeling when needed.
58. Wound which is inflicted by a sharp object with regular edges:
a) Incised wound b) Lacerated wound c) Punctured wound d) Granulation wound
Correct Answer: a) Incised wound
Explanation: An incised wound is produced by a sharp-edged instrument (like a scalpel or glass) and is characterized by straight, regular edges with minimal tearing of the surrounding tissue.
59. Wound healing phase in which basement membrane and scar is formed called:
a) Proliferative phase b) Maturation phase c) Fibroblastic phase d) Sequestration phase
Correct Answer: b) Maturation phase
Explanation: The maturation phase (or remodeling phase) is the final stage of wound healing where collagen is reorganized, the basement membrane is stabilized, and the final scar tissue is formed.
60. If healing through granulation tissue occurs then tissue is replaced by:
a) Fibrous tissue b) Epithelial cells c) Both Fibrous tissue and Epithelial cells d) None of these
Correct Answer: c) Both Fibrous tissue and Epithelial cells
Explanation: In second-intention healing, the defect is filled with fibrous (scar) tissue, while the surface is eventually covered by the migration of epithelial cells (epithelialization).
61. Knot use for deep ligatures called:
a) Granny knot b) Surgeon’s knot c) Double reef knot d) Slip knot
Correct Answer: b) Surgeon’s knot
Explanation: A surgeon’s knot involves an extra throw in the first loop to increase friction, which prevents the knot from slipping under tension. It is ideal for deep ligatures where security is paramount.
62. Suture suitable for intestinal anastomosis:
a) Gambee suture b) Halstead suture c) Cross mattress suture d) Interrupted inverted mattress suture
Correct Answer: a) Gambee suture
Explanation: The Gambee suture is a specialized appositional pattern specifically designed for intestinal anastomosis. It helps prevent mucosal eversion and reduces the risk of stricture.
63. Suture use to retain gauze packing inside a wound cavity:
a) Staple type suture b) Overlapping suture c) Eversion suture d) Retention suture
Correct Answer: d) Retention suture
Explanation: Retention sutures (often in a “quilting” or “tie-over” pattern) are used to hold gauze packing or bandages in place over a large defect or wound cavity.
64. Suture use for closing certain hernial rings:
a) Staple type suture b) Overlapping suture c) Eversion suture d) Retention suture
Correct Answer: b) Overlapping suture
Explanation: The overlapping (vest-over-pants) suture pattern is frequently used to close hernial rings because it provides a strong, double-layered seal by overlapping the tissue edges.
65. Absorbable suture material:
a) Linen b) Polyglycolic acid c) Vetafil d) Silk worm gut
Correct Answer: b) Polyglycolic acid
Explanation: Polyglycolic acid (e.g., Dexon) is a synthetic absorbable suture that breaks down in the body via hydrolysis. Linen and Vetafil are non-absorbable.
66. Suture use for wound on skin:
a) Apposition suture b) Inversion suture c) Eversion suture d) Purse-string suture
Correct Answer: a) Apposition suture
Explanation: For skin wounds, the goal is apposition (bringing the edges together so they just touch). Inversion or eversion patterns can delay healing and cause poor cosmetic results on the skin.
67. Following are the complications of orchidectomy except:
a) Automutilation b) Scrotal cellulitis c) Local cellulitis d) Orchitis
Correct Answer: d) Orchitis
Explanation: Orchitis is inflammation of the testis. Since orchidectomy is the surgical removal of the testes, orchitis cannot be a post-operative complication. Automutilation and cellulitis are valid risks.
68. Orchidectomy is always performed in:
a) Dorsal recumbency b) Ventral recumbency c) Lateral recumbency d) Dorso-lateral recumbency
Correct Answer: a) Dorsal recumbency
Explanation: In dogs, orchidectomy (neutering) is performed with the patient in dorsal recumbency (on their back) to provide the best surgical access to the pre-scrotal area.
69. Salivary mucocele is common in all except:
a) Toy poodles b) Miniature poodles c) German Shepherds d) Russian
Correct Answer: d) Russian
Explanation: Salivary mucoceles are frequently diagnosed in Poodles and German Shepherds. “Russian” is not a standard breed recognized for a high predisposition to this condition.
70. Number of pairs of salivary glands in the dog is:
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
Correct Answer: c) 4
Explanation: Dogs have four pairs of major salivary glands: Parotid, Mandibular, Sublingual, and Zygomatic.
71. The best age for ear trimming in large breed dogs is:
a) 10-12 weeks b) 5-6 weeks c) 16-18 weeks d) 8-10 weeks
Correct Answer: d) 8-10 weeks
Explanation: For large breeds, 8 to 10 weeks is considered the ideal age for ear cropping (trimming) as the cartilage is developed enough to support the shape but still pliable.
72. In ear trimming, sutures must be loose enough to accommodate post-operative:
a) Haemorrhage b) Haematoma c) Oedema d) Healing
Correct Answer: c) Oedema
Explanation: Surgical trauma to the ear flap results in significant oedema (swelling). If sutures are too tight, they will cut through the tissue as it swells.
73. Anal sacculectomy is performed in:
a) Dorsal recumbency b) Ventral recumbency c) Lateral recumbency d) Dorso-lateral recumbency
Correct Answer: b) Ventral recumbency
Explanation: Anal sacculectomy is typically performed in ventral (sternal) recumbency, often with the hindquarters elevated (the “perineal position”) for optimal access to the anus.
74. Anal sacculectomy is indicated in all except:
a) Recurrent impaction b) Abscessation c) Adenocarcinoma d) Fibrosarcoma
Correct Answer: d) Fibrosarcoma
Explanation: Excision is indicated for chronic impaction, abscesses, and anal sac adenocarcinoma. Fibrosarcoma is less commonly associated with the anal sacs specifically compared to glandular tumors.
75. Complication of incomplete anal sacculectomy is:
a) Chronic fistula formation b) Faecal incontinence c) Adenocarcinoma d) None of these
Correct Answer: a) Chronic fistula formation
Explanation: If any portion of the anal sac secretory lining is left behind during surgery, it will continue to produce fluid, leading to chronic draining fistulas in the perineal area.