Surgery MCQs Set 2
26. Paralytic ileus is common complication of
a) Gastrotmy
b) Nephrectomy
c) Entrotmy
d) Cystotmy
Correct Answer: c) Entrotmy
Explanation: Paralytic ileus is the temporary inhibition of intestinal motility. It is a common complication of Enterotomy (opening the intestine) or any surgery involving significant handling of the bowel, as the manipulation disrupts normal peristaltic waves.
27. Which of the following is not indication of Entrectomy in dog
a) Foreign bodies leading to intestinal necrosis
b) Torsion
c) Strangulation
d) Recurring rectal prolapse
Correct Answer: d) Recurring rectal prolapse
Explanation: Entrectomy is the surgical removal of a segment of the small intestine. It is indicated for irreversible damage like necrosis, torsion, or strangulation. Recurring rectal prolapse is usually treated via colopexy or rectal pull-through, not small intestinal resection.
28. Which of the following is not complication of Entrectomy in dog
a) Paralytic ileus
b) Stenosis
c) Leakage and peritonitis
d) Rectal prolapse
Correct Answer: d) Rectal prolapse
Explanation: Post-operative complications of intestinal resection include leakage at the suture site, stenosis (narrowing of the lumen), and paralytic ileus. Rectal prolapse is a condition of the terminal large unit and not a direct complication of small bowel surgery.
29. Dioctophyma renale worm infestation is treated surgically by
a) Entrectomy
b) Nephrotomy
c) Entrotomy
d) Gastrotmy
Correct Answer: b) Nephrotomy
Explanation: Dioctophyma renale is the giant kidney worm. Since it primarily inhabits the renal pelvis, Nephrotomy (incising the kidney) or Nephrectomy (removing the kidney) is required to surgically extract the parasite.
30. Hydrothorax is often associated with:
a) Diaphragmatic hernia
b) Umbilical hernia
c) Inguinal hernia
d) Sacrotal hernia
Correct Answer: a) Diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation: In a Diaphragmatic hernia, abdominal organs move into the thoracic cavity. This displacement often causes pleural effusion or hydrothorax due to the entrapment of organs and the resulting inflammatory response or venous congestion.
31. Urine filtration occurs in which portion of the nephron?
a) Proximal tubule
b) Glomerulus
c) Collecting tubule
d) Distal tubule
Correct Answer: b) Glomerulus
Explanation: The Glomerulus is a network of capillaries where the high-pressure filtration of blood occurs, creating the primary filtrate that then moves into the tubular system for processing.
32. A correct statement regarding halothane and methoxyflurane is that these anesthetics:
a) Cross the placenta very slowly.
b) Have no affect on the fetus.
c) Do not cross the placenta.1
d) Cross the placenta rapidly.2
Correct Answer: d) Cross the placenta rapidly.3
Explanation: Most inhalant anesthetics like halothane are highly lipid-soluble and have low molecular4 weight, allowing them to cross the placental barrier rapidly. This can lead to neonatal depression during C-sections.
33. Which of the following is the best reversible agent for inducing anesthesia in sight hounds?
a) Pentobarbital
b) Oxymorphone
c) Phenobarbital
d) Pentothal
Correct Answer: b) Oxymorphone
Explanation: Sighthounds (like Greyhounds) have low body fat and altered liver metabolism, making barbiturates like Pentothal dangerous. Oxymorphone (an opioid) is safer because it is effective and its effects can be quickly reversed with naloxone.
34. Which of the following tissues is most radiation-sensitive?
a) Bone cortex
b) Cartilage
c) Muscle
d) Bone marrow
Correct Answer: d) Bone marrow
Explanation: Radiation sensitivity (radiosensitivity) is highest in tissues with high cell turnover rates. Bone marrow, being actively hematopoietic, is extremely sensitive compared to stable tissues like muscle or bone cortex.
35. When used as a preanesthetic, atropine will:
a) Provide sufficient anesthesia for minor surgery.
b) Frequently produce vomiting.
c) Inhibit excessive salivary secretion.
d) Cause the pupils to constrict.
Correct Answer: c) Inhibit excessive salivary secretion.
Explanation: Atropine is an anticholinergic. It is used as a premedication to reduce respiratory and salivary secretions and to prevent bradycardia (slow heart rate) during anesthesia.
36. The soda lime in inhalation anesthesia equipment is used to absorb:
a) Nitrous oxide.
b) Nitrogen.
c) Carbon dioxide.
d) The anesthetic.
Correct Answer: c) Carbon dioxide.
Explanation: In rebreathing anesthetic systems, soda lime canisters chemically react with and remove Carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) from the exhaled breath so the patient can safely rebreathe the anesthetic gases.
37. From cranial to caudal, the correct order for the segments of the spine in animals is:
a) Coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, cervical
b) Cervical, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, coccygeal5
c) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal6
d) Coccygeal, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, cervical7
Correct Answer: c) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal8
Explanation: The spine follows a standard anatomical path: Cervical (neck), T9horacic (chest/ribs), Lumbar (lower back), Sacral (pelvis), and Coccygeal (tail).
38. An emasculator is used in:
a) Orthopedics.
b) Dentistry.
c) Cardiology.
d) Castration.
Correct Answer: d) Castration.
Explanation: An emasculator is a surgical tool used primarily in the castration of livestock (like horses and bulls). It simultaneously crushes and cuts the spermatic cord to prevent hemorrhage.
39. A correct statement regarding an onychectomy is that it involves the:
a) Excision of a cyst.
b) Amputation of the tail.
c) Surgical removal of the nail.
d) Excision of the testicles.
Correct Answer: c) Surgical removal of the nail.
Explanation: Onychectomy is the formal term for declawing. It involves the surgical removal of the third phalanx (P3) and the associated nail/claw.
40. A correct statement about the proper storage of whole blood is that it:
a) Can be frozen for up to 1 year.
b) Can be stored at 39.2 F – 50 F (4 C – 10 C) for up to 3 weeks.
c) Should be stored above 122 F (50 C).10
d) Does not need refrigeration for the first week of storage.11
Correct Answer: b) Can be stored at 39.2 F – 50 F (4 C – 10 C) for up to 3 weeks.12
Explanation: Whole blood should be refrigerated (not frozen, as freezing lyses RBCs) between 4°C and 10°C. Dependin13g on the anticoagulant used (like CPDA-1), it can be stored for approximately 21 to 35 days.
41. In which of the following types of fracture would skin be torn, and bone and subcutaneous tissue be exposed?
a) Impacted
b) Greenstick
c) Compound
d) Comminuted
Correct Answer: c) Compound
Explanation: A compound fracture (also known as an open fracture) is one where the bone breaks through the skin, creating a direct communication between the fracture site and the outside environment.
42. The type of wound healing in which granulation tissue forms, filling the defect, is known as:
a) First intention
b) Second intention
c) Third intention
d) Fourth intention
Correct Answer: b) Second intention
Explanation: Second intention healing occurs when wound edges are not apposed (brought together). The body must fill the gap with granulation tissue, followed by contraction and epithelialization.
43. Which of the following is commonly used for infiltration and epidural anesthesia?
a) Proparacaine
b) Lidocaine
c) Pentobarbital
d) Sodium pentothal
Correct Answer: b) Lidocaine
Explanation: Lidocaine is a versatile local anesthetic used frequently for local infiltration and epidural blocks due to its rapid onset and moderate duration of action.
44. Lumbar puncture:
a) Is always contraindicated if papilloedema is present
b) Is safe if a frontal lobe mass is present
c) Is safe if a posterior fossa mass is present
d) Is safe in benign intracranial hypertension
Correct Answer: a) Is always contraindicated if papilloedema is present14
Explanation: If papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc) is present, it indicates high intracranial pressure. A lumbar puncture in such cases can cause a sudden pressure drop in the 15spinal canal, leading to fatal brain herniation.
45. Which bone Plate use for general veterinary orthopedics?
a) Venable bone Plate
b) Lane bone plate
c) Sherman bone plate
d) None of them
Correct Answer: c) Sherman bone plate
Explanation: While many human plates were adapted for animals, the Sherman bone plate and the later developed DCP (Dynamic Compression Plate) became staples in veterinary orthopedics for stabilizing long bone fractures.
46. Which Pin used most frequently in veterinary orthopedics:
a) Steinman pin
b) Threaded pin
c) Rush pin
d) Sherman pin
Correct Answer: a) Steinman pin
Explanation: The Steinmann pin (intramedullary pin) is the most frequently used pinning device in veterinary practice to stabilize fractures by being placed directly into the medullary canal of long bones.
47. Facture in which one or more fine cracks penetrate the cortex is called
a) Complete fracture
b) Green stick fracture
c) Fissure fracture
d) Oblique fracture
Correct Answer: c) Fissure fracture
Explanation: A fissure fracture is an incomplete fracture characterized by tiny, hair-like cracks in the outer layer (cortex) of the bone without complete separation of the bone segments.
48. Fracture in which one side of bone is broken and other side is bending called:
a) Complete fracture
b) Green stick fracture
c) Fissure fracture
d) Oblique fracture
Correct Answer: b) Green stick fracture
Explanation: In a greenstick fracture, the bone is “soft” (common in young animals). One side of the cortex breaks while the other side simply bends, much like a young, green branch on a tree.
49._____ complication occurs when bones are allowed to heal in non-functional anatomical position.
a) Mal union
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Improper immobilization
d) All of these
Correct Answer: a) Mal union
Explanation: Mal-union refers to a fracture that has healed, but the bone segments have fused in a way that is anatomically incorrect or non-functional (e.g., crooked or rotated).
50. How many basic thoracotomy incisions:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Correct Answer: b) 2
Explanation: The two most basic surgical approaches to the thorax (thoracotomies) are the Lateral Intercostal Thoracotomy (between the ribs) and the Median Sternotomy (through the sternum).