Surgery MCQs Set 6
126. Lithotripsy is used to treat:
a) Faecolith b) Urolith c) Sailolith d) Gall stones
Correct Answer: b) Urolith
Explanation: Lithotripsy is a procedure that uses shock waves to break uroliths (urinary stones) into small fragments that can be passed through the urine.
127. Which is not the complication of coeliotomy?
a) Intestinal impaction b) Shock c) Peritonitis d) Paralytic ileus
Correct Answer: a) Intestinal impaction
Explanation: A coeliotomy (opening the abdomen) carries risks of shock, infection (peritonitis), and slowed bowel movements (paralytic ileus). Intestinal impaction is usually a primary disease state, not a common complication of the incision itself.
128. Which artery supplies the fundus of the stomach?
a) Splenic artery b) Gastroepiploic artery c) Gastric artery d) Epigastric artery
Correct Answer: a) Splenic artery
Explanation: The splenic artery gives off short gastric arteries that provide the primary blood supply to the fundus of the stomach.
129. Which ligament is excised to facilitate the visualization of stomach?
a) Falciform b) Falcipasum c) Filiform d) Pelvic
Correct Answer: a) Falciform
Explanation: The falciform ligament is a fatty fold found between the diaphragm and the liver/stomach. It is often excised or moved during a cranial midline laparotomy to improve visibility.
130. Complication of Entrectomy includes:
a) Paralytic ileus b) Gastritis c) Dehydration d) Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: a) Paralytic ileus
Explanation: As noted in previous questions, any surgery involving the removal of an intestinal segment (entrectomy) carries a high risk of paralytic ileus due to the handling of the bowel.
131. Which suture pattern is preferred in longitudinal incision of intestine?
a) Bell sutures b) Connell sutures c) Gambee sutures d) Lambert sutures
Correct Answer: c) Gambee sutures
Explanation: The Gambee suture is the standard appositional pattern for intestinal surgery because it prevents the mucosa from turning outward and minimizes narrowing of the intestinal lumen.
132. End-to-End intestinal anastomosis is implemented in all except:
a) Intussusception b) Torsion c) Volvulus d) Foreign body in absence of necrosis
Correct Answer: d) Foreign body in absence of necrosis
Explanation: If a foreign body is present but the intestine is healthy (no necrosis), only an enterotomy (simple incision) is needed to remove it. Anastomosis (removing a segment) is only required when the tissue is dead or severely damaged.
133. End-to-End intestinal anastomosis sutures are inserted approximately, how many mm from incised ends:
a) 3mm b) 5mm c) 2mm d) 6mm
Correct Answer: a) 3mm
Explanation: Sutures should be placed about 3 mm from the edge of the incision and 3 mm apart to ensure they grip the submucosa without causing tissue strangulation or excessive narrowing.
134. Nephrotomy is indication in which parasitism:
a) Dioctophyma b) Onchocerca c) Strongylus d) Parascarris
Correct Answer: a) Dioctophyma
Explanation: Dioctophyma renale (Giant Kidney Worm) lives in the kidney. Removing it requires a nephrotomy (surgical incision into the kidney).
135. In Nephrotomy which is most important post-operative indication:
a) Haematuria b) Haemoglobinuria c) Haematoma d) None of these
Correct Answer: a) Haematuria
Explanation: Haematuria (blood in the urine) is expected for a few days following a nephrotomy as the surgical site in the renal pelvis heals.
136. In hydronephrosis the following procedure is indicated:
a) Nephrectomy b) Nephrotomy c) Diuresis d) Peritoneal dialysis
Correct Answer: a) Nephrectomy
Explanation: If the kidney is severely distended with urine (hydronephrosis) and the functional tissue is destroyed, the best treatment is nephrectomy (complete removal of the kidney), provided the other kidney is healthy.
137. The most common reason for performing cystotomy in dog is:
a) Cystic calculi b) Trauma c) Tumors d) Chronic cystitis
Correct Answer: a) Cystic calculi
Explanation: The most frequent indication for opening the bladder (cystotomy) is to remove bladder stones (cystic calculi).
138. Colopexy refers to the fixation of colon to:
a) Ventro-lateral abdominal wall b) Latero-medical abdominal wall c) Medio-dorsal abdominal wall d) Latero-dorsal abdominal wall
Correct Answer: a) Ventro-lateral abdominal wall
Explanation: Colopexy is the permanent attachment of the colon to the ventro-lateral abdominal wall to prevent recurrent rectal prolapse.
139. Ovariohysterectomy is contra-indicated in:
a) Cysts b) Estrus c) Pseudocyesis d) All of these
Correct Answer: c) Pseudocyesis
Explanation: Spaying a dog during pseudocyesis (false pregnancy) is contraindicated because the sudden drop in progesterone can lead to a massive spike in prolactin, making the false pregnancy symptoms (like milk production) permanent or harder to treat.
140. The best time for spaying is:
a) 6 months of age b) After puberty c) After first estrus d) 6-8 weeks after parturition
Correct Answer: a) 6 months of age
Explanation: Conventionally, 6 months of age is considered the ideal time for elective spaying in dogs, as it typically occurs before the first estrous cycle.
141. Total splenectomy is indicated in all except:
a) Torsion b) Hypersplenism c) Haemangioma d) Haematoma
Correct Answer: d) Haematoma
Explanation: Small haematomas can often be managed conservatively. Torsion, certain cancers (Haemangioma), and hypersplenism usually require total splenectomy.
142. Which drug is indicated in splenectomy to prevent flow of blood to spleen?
a) Adrenaline b) Atropine c) Acetylcholine d) leptazole
Correct Answer: a) Adrenaline
Explanation: Adrenaline causes contraction of the splenic capsule, which helps squeeze blood out of the spleen and into the general circulation before removal.
143. Following are the complications of splenectomy except:
a) Peritonitis b) Haemorrhage c) Gastric perforation d) Piroplasmosis
Correct Answer: a) Peritonitis
Explanation: While any surgery has a slight risk of infection, peritonitis is not a common complication specific to splenectomy. Haemorrhage, potential gastric damage, and the flare-up of latent blood parasites like Piroplasmosis (Babesia) are recognized risks.
144. Best age for amputation of tail in dog is:
a) At age of 3 months b) Less than 3 months c) More than 3 months d) At age of one year
Correct Answer: b) Less than 3 months
Explanation: Cosmetic tail docking is usually performed in puppies less than 1 week old, but for surgical amputation, the younger the better (typically under 3 months) to reduce trauma and speed healing.
145. After parturition most common effect of spaying is:
a) Estrus b) Herniation c) Obesity d) Shock
Correct Answer: c) Obesity
Explanation: Metabolic changes after spaying often lead to obesity in dogs if their diet and exercise are not managed carefully.
146. Anterior ventral midline incisions extend from:
a) Xiphoid to the umbilicus b) Cranially to caudally from the umbilicus c) Umbilicus to the pubis d) None of these
Correct Answer: a) Xiphoid to the umbilicus
Explanation: The anterior (cranial) ventral midline approach is defined as the area from the xiphoid process to the umbilicus.
147. Incisions of the abdominal ventral midline may be divided into areas:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Correct Answer: c) 3
Explanation: The ventral midline is typically divided into three areas: cranial (anterior), middle, and caudal.
148. In thoracotomy left anterior chest is approached between:
a) 1st and 2nd ribs b) 2nd and 3rd ribs c) 3rd and 4th ribs d) 4th and 5th ribs
Correct Answer: c) 3rd and 4th ribs
Explanation: The 3rd or 4th intercostal space is used for a left-sided thoracotomy when accessing the great vessels or the cranial part of the heart.
149. Thoracotomy approach for the modified Heller procedure is made in the:
a) 5th and 6th rib space b) 6th and 7th rib space c) 7th and 8th rib space d) 8th and 9th rib space
Correct Answer: c) 7th and 8th rib space
Explanation: The Heller procedure (to treat achalasia) requires access to the distal esophagus, which is best achieved through the 7th or 8th intercostal space.
150. The best age for cosmetic ear trimming in large dog breeds is:
a) Just after birth b) In first week of life c) At age of 8-10 weeks d) At age of 1 year
Correct Answer: c) At age of 8-10 weeks
Explanation: As noted previously, the window between 8 and 10 weeks is optimal for large breeds so the ears will stand properly.