Surgery MCQs Set 5
101. The best suture pattern for rectal prolapse is:
a) Purse-string suture
b) Cushing suture
c) Lembert suture
d) Eversion suture
Correct Answer: a) Purse-string suture
Explanation: A purse-string suture is a temporary circular suture placed around the anus after the prolapse has been reduced. It is tightened enough to prevent recurrence while still allowing for the passage of soft feces.
102. Which one of the following conditions is not indication for spaying?
a) Pseudocyesis
b) Nymphomania
c) Mammary tumors
d) Gynacomastia
Correct Answer: d) Gynacomastia
Explanation: Gynaecomastia (enlargement of mammary tissue in males) is usually associated with Sertoli cell tumors in the testes and is an indication for castration, not spaying. Pseudocyesis (false pregnancy), nymphomania (cystic ovaries), and mammary tumors are all indications for an ovariohysterectomy (spaying).
103. The best age in mature female dog for ovariohysterectomy is:
a) At starting day of estrus
b) At last day of estrus
c) Two to three days after parturition
d) Six to eight weeks after parturition
Correct Answer: d) Six to eight weeks after parturition
Explanation: Performing surgery during estrus or immediately after birth is risky due to increased vascularity of the uterus. Waiting six to eight weeks after parturition allows the uterus to undergo complete involution and the mammary glands to stop lactating.
104. The cause of pseudoestrus in ovariohysterectomized female dogs is:
a) Chronic vaginitis
b) Metritis
c) Salpingitis
d) Oophritis
Correct Answer: a) Chronic vaginitis
Explanation: Pseudoestrus (showing signs of heat in a spayed dog) is often caused by chronic vaginitis or the presence of an “ovarian remnant.” In the absence of an ovarian remnant, vaginal inflammation can cause swelling and discharge that mimics estrus.
105. Intra-arterial injection for splenic contraction during splenectomy operation is contraindicated in case of:
a) Splenic torsion
b) Hypersplenism
c) Splenomegaly
d) Splenic neoplasms
Correct Answer: d) Splenic neoplasms
Explanation: Injecting drugs like adrenaline into the splenic artery causes the spleen to contract to save blood. However, this is contraindicated in splenic neoplasms (cancers) because the contraction could potentially force malignant cells into the systemic circulation (metastasis).
106. Where do alimentary foreign bodies most commonly lodge?
a) Pharyngeal esophagus
b) Esophagus near the base of the heart
c) Esophagus in the diaphragmatic vital region
d) Duodenum
Correct Answer: b) Esophagus near the base of the heart
Explanation: Esophageal foreign bodies usually lodge at three narrow points: the thoracic inlet, the base of the heart (where the aorta and heart provide external pressure), and the diaphragmatic hiatus. The base of the heart is statistically the most common site.
107. What type of system is most effective for draining an effusion associated with generalized peritonitis?
a) Closed suction drain
b) Continuous suction drain
c) Open peritoneal drainage
d) Penrose drain
Correct Answer: c) Open peritoneal drainage
Explanation: Open peritoneal drainage (leaving the abdominal incision partially open) is often used for severe, generalized septic peritonitis to allow for continuous discharge of contaminated fluid and better oxygenation of the cavity.
108. What is primary treatment for acute elbow hygroma?
a) Providing a well padded area
b) Aseptically draining of hygroma
c) Excision of affected area
d) Oral corticosteroid and antibiotics
Correct Answer: a) Providing a well padded area
Explanation: An elbow hygroma is a fluid-filled sac caused by repeated trauma on hard surfaces. The primary treatment is providing a well-padded area (soft bedding) and protective bandages. Draining or excision is usually avoided unless the hygroma is infected, as it can lead to chronic non-healing wounds.
109. Castration can be used in treatment or prevention of all the following disorder except:
a) Perianal fistula
b) Perianal adenoma
c) Chronic prostatitis
d) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Correct Answer: a) Perianal fistula
Explanation: Perianal fistulas are inflammatory/immune-mediated diseases (common in German Shepherds) and are not hormone-dependent. Perianal adenomas and prostatic diseases are highly dependent on testosterone and are significantly helped by castration.
110. What is the preferred site for urethrostomy in male dogs?
a) Scrotal
b) Prescrotal
c) Perineal
d) Prepubic
Correct Answer: a) Scrotal
Explanation: The scrotal site is preferred because the urethra is widest and most superficial in this region, which reduces the chance of post-operative stricture compared to the prescrotal or perineal sites.
111. The strongest type of gastropexy used as treatment of gastric dilation volvulus in dog is:
a) Tube gastrostomy
b) Gastrocolopexy
c) Circumcostal gastropexy
d) gastrostomy
Correct Answer: c) Circumcostal gastropexy
Explanation: Circumcostal gastropexy involves looping a flap of the stomach wall around a rib. It is considered one of the strongest methods for preventing the recurrence of Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV).
112. What is isograft?
a) Graft in which the donor tissue is not of same organ type
b) Graft in which tissue is transferred to a new position on the same individual
c) Graft in which donor and recipient are different individual but genetically identical
d) Graft in which donor and recipient are genetically an identical1
Correct Answer: c) Graft in which donor and recipient are different individual but genetically identical2
Explanation: An isograft (or syngraft) oc3curs between genetically identical individuals, such as identical twins or highly inbred laboratory strains.
113. The layer of the esophagus that is the most likely to retain suture is:
a) Mucosa
b) Smooth muscle layer
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Submucosa
Correct Answer: d) Submucosa
Explanation: In almost all hollow organs, including the esophagus and intestines, the submucosa is the “holding layer” because of its high collagen content. Sutures placed only in the muscle layer will easily pull out.
114. A surgical incision into the respiratory tract is classified as:
a) Clean
b) Clean Contaminated
c) Dirty
d) Contaminated
Correct Answer: b) Clean Contaminated
Explanation: An incision into a hollow viscus (like the respiratory, alimentary, or urinary tract) under controlled conditions without unusual contamination is classified as Clean Contaminated.
115. The mucocele developed in salivary gland is known as:
a) Sailocoele
b) Hydrocoele
c) Angiocoele
d) Salivary nidus
Correct Answer: a) Sialocoele
Explanation: A sialocoele (or salivary mucocele) is an accumulation of saliva in the tissues due to leakage from a damaged salivary gland or duct.
116. The term used to describe a salivary mucocele located ventral to the tongue is:
a) Ranula
b) Lingnoma
c) Cyst
d) Cavity
Correct Answer: a) Ranula
Explanation: A ranula is a specific type of salivary mucocele that forms under the tongue on the floor of the mouth.
117. The most common indication for gastrotomy in cat is:
a) Neoplasia
b) Gastric ulcers
c) Parasitism
d) Foreign bodies
Correct Answer: d) Foreign bodies
Explanation: Cats frequently ingest non-food items (like string or hairballs/trichobezoars). Gastrotomy (surgical opening of the stomach) is most often performed to remove these foreign bodies.
118. The invaginated portion of the bowel in intussusceptions called:
a) Intussusceptum
b) Intussuscipiens
c) Inverted segment
d) Everted segment
Correct Answer: a) Intussusceptum
Explanation: In an intussusception (telescoping of the bowel), the segment that slides into the other is the intussusceptum. The receiving segment is the intussuscipiens.
119. The portion of the bowel most commonly involved in Intussusception is:
a) Distal jejunum
b) Ileocolic valve area
c) Ileum
d) duodenum
Correct Answer: b) Ileocolic valve area
Explanation: The ileocolic junction is the most common site for intussusception because of the difference in diameter and motility between the small and large intestines.
120. Which of the following is considered as closed wound?
a) Contusion
b) Laceration
c) Incision
d) Puncture
Correct Answer: a) Contusion
Explanation: A contusion (bruise) is a closed wound where the skin remains intact, but the underlying tissues and blood vessels are damaged. Lacerations, incisions, and punctures are all open wounds.
121. Which wound is ideal for anaerobic infection?
a) Contusion
b) Laceration
c) Incision
d) Punctured
Correct Answer: d) Punctured
Explanation: Puncture wounds are deep and narrow, carrying bacteria deep into tissues while the surface closes quickly. This creates a low-oxygen environment ideal for anaerobes like Clostridium tetani.
122. Which is the absorbable suture material?
a) Polypropylene
b) Silk
c) Cotton
d) Chromic catgut
Correct Answer: d) Chromic catgut
Explanation: Chromic catgut is a natural material that is broken down and absorbed by the body’s inflammatory cells. Polypropylene, silk, and cotton are non-absorbable.
123. Which suture material produces the most tissue reaction?
a) Stainless steel
b) Plain catgut
c) Chromic gut
d) Polyester fiber
Correct Answer: b) Plain catgut
Explanation: Plain catgut is a foreign protein (derived from sheep/cow gut). Because it is absorbed through phagocytosis and enzymatic digestion, it causes a significant inflammatory tissue reaction compared to synthetic or metallic materials.
124. Which suture pattern is considered inverting?
a) Cushing
b) Vertical mattress
c) Simple continuous
d) Cross mattress
Correct Answer: a) Cushing
Explanation: The Cushing suture is an inverting pattern used to close hollow organs like the stomach or uterus. It turns the tissue edges inward to ensure a leak-proof seal. Mattress sutures are typically appositional or everting.
125. The most common cryogenic agent used in veterinary medicine is:
a) Liquid nitrogen
b) Dry ice
c) Freon
d) Nitrous oxide
Correct Answer: a) Liquid nitrogen
Explanation: Liquid nitrogen ($-196^{\circ}\text{C}$) is the most effective and commonly used agent for cryosurgery to destroy small tumors or skin tags by freezing.