Surgery MCQs Set 4

76. Size of suture material range from:

a) 7-15/0 b) 9-14/0 c) 10-20/0 d) 6-16/0

Correct Answer: a) 7-15/0

Explanation: Suture sizes range from very thick (e.g., #7) to extremely fine threads used in microsurgery (e.g., 15-0).


77. Extra-chromic catgut suture can be absorbed approximately within:

a) 40 days b) 20 days c) 15 days d) 10 days

Correct Answer: a) 40 days

Explanation: Chromic treatment slows the absorption of catgut. Extra-chromic catgut is treated to maintain tensile strength for a longer period, generally absorbing over 40 days or more.


78. Slip knot is also known as:

a) Pocked knot b) Surgeon’s knot c) Granny knot d) Square knot

Correct Answer: c) Granny knot

Explanation: A slip knot (often produced accidentally by a beginner as a granny knot) occurs when the loops are not crossed correctly, causing the knot to slide or “slip” under tension.


79. Permanently luxated patella which can be replaced manually is classified as grade:

a) І b) ІІ c) ІІІ d) ІV

Correct Answer: c) ІІІ

Explanation: In Grade III patellar luxation, the patella is permanently out of the groove but can be manually replaced. In Grade IV, it is permanently luxated and cannot be manually reduced.


80. The best site for urethrostomy in recurrent obstruction is:

a) Ischial urethrostomy b) Pubic urethrostomy c) Iliac urethrostomy d) Pelvic urethrostomy

Correct Answer: a) Ischial urethrostomy

Explanation: In many animals, particularly livestock, the ischial (perineal) urethrostomy is the preferred site to bypass a distal obstruction in the urethra.


81. Blood supply to tonsils is from the tonsillar artery which is a branch of:

a) Lingual artery b) Facial artery c) Carotid artery d) Aorta

Correct Answer: a) Lingual artery

Explanation: The tonsillar artery is a small branch typically arising from the lingual artery (which itself is a branch of the external carotid).


82. The best age for ear trimming in small breed dogs is:

a) 8 weeks b) 10 weeks c) 12 weeks d) 14 weeks

Correct Answer: c) 12 weeks

Explanation: For small breeds, ear cropping is often slightly delayed until about 12 weeks to allow for better surgical precision and ear development.


83. Which nerve is blocked in Enucleation:

a) Retro-bulbar nerve b) Cornual nerve c) Trochlear nerve d) Abundant nerve

Correct Answer: a) Retro-bulbar nerve

Explanation: A retro-bulbar block is used for enucleation (eye removal) to desensitize the cranial nerves (II, III, IV, VI, and branches of V) that supply the eye and its muscles.


84. Best site for collection of CSF in canine is:

a) Sub-occipital puncture b) Lumbo-sacral puncture c) Sacro-coccygeal puncture d) Thoraco-lumbar puncture

Correct Answer: a) Sub-occipital puncture

Explanation: The sub-occipital (cisterna magna) puncture is the most common site for collecting cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in dogs because it provides a larger volume and higher cell count than the lumbar site.


85. In Rectal prolapse, the tissue oedema is locally treated with:

a) 50% dextrose b) 10% dextrose c) 5% dextrose d) Normal saline

Correct Answer: a) 50% dextrose

Explanation: 50% dextrose (or sugar) is a hypertonic solution used to draw fluid out of the swollen rectal tissue via osmosis, effectively reducing oedema so the prolapse can be manually reduced.


86. Following drugs are responsible for peptic ulcers except:

a) Salicylates b) Corticosteroids c) Aspirin d) Chlorpheniramine

Correct Answer: d) Chlorpheniramine

Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is an antihistamine and does not typically cause GI ulceration. Salicylates, Aspirin, and Corticosteroids are well-known to increase the risk of peptic ulcers by inhibiting protective prostaglandins.


87. Which one is the least common cause of gastric outlet obstruction:

a) Foreign bodies b) Gastric neoplasia c) Pyloric ulcer d) Abscess

Correct Answer: d) Abscess

Explanation: While foreign bodies, tumors (neoplasia), and ulcers are common causes of pyloric obstruction, an abscess in the pyloric wall is extremely rare.


88. Congenital pyloric stenosis can be treated by:

a) Y-U pyloroplasty b) U-V pyloroplasty c) U-U pyloroplasty d) Y-Y pyloroplasty

Correct Answer: a) Y-U pyloroplasty

Explanation: The Y-U pyloroplasty (or Fredet-Ramstedt procedure) is a surgical technique used to widen the pylorus and relieve stenosis by advancing an antral flap into the pyloric area.


89. The incidence of TVT in male and female dogs as follows:

a) 45%-55% b) 55%-45% c) 70%-30% d) 30%-70%

Correct Answer: d) 30%-70%

Explanation: Transmissible Venereal Tumor (TVT) is statistically more prevalent in females (approx 70%) compared to males, largely due to breeding dynamics and the anatomy of transmission.


90. Stenotic Nares is frequently found in the following breed of dogs:

a) Brachycephalic breeds b) Normocephalic breeds c) Microcephalic breeds d) Macrocephalic breeds

Correct Answer: a) Brachycephalic breeds

Explanation: Stenotic nares (narrowed nostrils) are a primary component of Brachycephalic Obstructive Airway Syndrome (BOAS), common in breeds like Pugs and Bulldogs.


91. Tracheal collapse syndrome is found in the following breeds of dog:

a) Small breeds b) Large breeds c) Medium breeds d) All breeds

Correct Answer: a) Small breeds

Explanation: Tracheal collapse is a progressive disease primarily affecting small and toy breeds (e.g., Pomeranians, Yorkies, Poodles) due to the weakening of the tracheal cartilage rings.


92. Bone graft can help to repair a defect by the following ways except:

a) Osteogenesis b) Osteoinduction c) Osteoconduction d) Osteotransduction

Correct Answer: d) Osteotransduction

Explanation: Bone grafts work through Osteogenesis, Osteoinduction, and Osteoconduction. “Osteotransduction” is not a recognized biological mechanism for bone healing.


93. The microbes most common in colorectal surgery are:

a) G+ ve anaerobes b) G- ve aerobes c) Anaerobes only d) G- ve enteric anaerobes

Correct Answer: d) G- ve enteric anaerobes

Explanation: The large intestine is heavily populated with Gram-negative enteric anaerobes (like Bacteroides and E. coli), which pose the greatest risk for sepsis during colorectal surgery.


94. The antimicrobial of choice for per-operative use in colostomy is:

a) Erythromycin b) Tylosin c) Penicilline d) Cephalosporin

Correct Answer: d) Cephalosporin

Explanation: Cephalosporins (specifically second or third generation) are the gold standard for peri-operative prophylaxis in GI surgery because they offer a broad spectrum of coverage against enteric bacteria.


95. The melaena is an indication of:

a) Oesophageal haemorrhage b) Gastric haemorrhage c) Intestinal haemorrhage d) Oral haemorrhage

Correct Answer: b) Gastric haemorrhage

Explanation: Melaena (black, tarry stools) is an indicator of upper GI bleeding (specifically gastric or duodenal). The dark color results from the digestion of blood by stomach acid and enzymes.


96. Chromic catgut is made up of:

a) Cat gut b) Sheep gut c) Kangaroo gut d) Dog gut

Correct Answer: b) Sheep gut

Explanation: Despite the name, catgut is actually made from the submucosa of the sheep’s intestine or the serosa of bovine intestines.


97. Which surgical procedure is designed to enlarge the vulvar opening?

a) Hysterotomy b) Vaginotomy c) Episiotomy d) Celiotomy

Correct Answer: c) Episiotomy

Explanation: An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum and vulva to enlarge the opening to facilitate difficult births (dystocia).


98. Accumulation of air in the chest is known as:

a) Pneumonia b) Pneumonitis c) Chylothorax d) Pneumothorax

Correct Answer: d) Pneumothorax

Explanation: Pneumothorax is the clinical term for air in the pleural space (chest cavity), which causes the lungs to collapse and impairs breathing.


99. Neoplasia of the spleen is best treated by:

a) Splenectomy b) Chemotherapy c) Irradiation d) No treatment

Correct Answer: a) Splenectomy

Explanation: The definitive treatment for splenic neoplasia (like hemangiosarcoma) is splenectomy (surgical removal of the spleen) to prevent life-threatening internal hemorrhage.


100. Which suture pattern is most appropriate for closure of the small intestine in a dog after intestine resection?

a) Cushing b) Connell c) Simple interrupted d) Parker-Kerr

Correct Answer: c) Simple interrupted

Explanation: For small intestinal anastomosis in dogs, a simple interrupted appositional pattern is often preferred because it ensures accurate alignment without narrowing the lumen (stenosis) as much as continuous or inverting patterns might.

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