General Pathology Questions Set 3
51. The following are true about basal cell carcinoma:
A. Affecting the Upper Lid More Commonly Than the Lower Lids B. Palisading of the Peripheral Cells C. Does Not Invade the Bone D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. Palisading of the Peripheral Cells
Explanation: Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) characteristically shows nests of tumor cells where the outer layer of cells is arranged in a parallel, “picket-fence” fashion known as peripheral palisading. Contrary to option A, it affects the lower lid more commonly. While slow-growing, neglected cases can eventually invade underlying bone (rodent ulcer).
52. One of these is wrong:
A. Gangrene Refers to Tissue Necrosis with Or Without Infection B. Acute Inflammation Usually Occurs Around Necrotic Tissues C. Apoptosis Does Not Usually Cause Inflammation D. Autolytic Changes in the Nucleus Are Pathognomonic of Necrosis
Correct Answer: D. Autolytic Changes in the Nucleus Are Pathognomonic of Necrosis
Explanation: Nuclear changes like pyknosis, karyorrhexis, and karyolysis are characteristic of necrosis in a living organism, but “autolytic” changes refer specifically to self-digestion after the death of the entire organism (post-mortem). Therefore, they are not pathognomonic of the pathological process of necrosis in a patient.
53. The following are true with regard to cell growth:
A. the Main Stimulus for Hypertrophy is Hormonal B. in Metaplasia, There is A Change of A Type of Differentiated Cell to A Type of Undifferentiated Cell C. Achondroplasia Does Not Affect Membranous Bone D. Metaplasia and dysplasia are similar in most extent
Correct Answer: C. Achondroplasia Does Not Affect Membranous Bone
Explanation: Achondroplasia is a defect in endochondral ossification (long bones). Membranous bone formation (like the skull and clavicles) remains normal. Metaplasia involves one differentiated cell type changing into another differentiated cell type, not an undifferentiated one.
54. The following are true about squamous cell carcinoma:
A. it is A Commoner Malignant Skin Tumour Than Basal Cell Carcinoma B. it Only Occurs in the Skin C. Metastasis is Usually to the Regional Lymph Nodes D. Most commonly occur in bones
Correct Answer: C. Metastasis is Usually to the Regional Lymph Nodes
Explanation: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is a malignant epithelial tumor that, unlike BCC, has a significant risk of metastasizing to regional lymph nodes. It can occur in any squamous-lined surface, including the esophagus, lungs, and cervix, not just the skin.
55. Features of a sebaceous cyst include:
A. it Arises in the Dermis B. it is Firmly Adherent to the Skin C. it Contains Mucopolysaccharides D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. it is Firmly Adherent to the Skin
Explanation: A sebaceous (epidermoid) cyst is typically attached to the skin by a tiny opening called a punctum. It contains keratin, not mucopolysaccharides. While it sits in the dermis, its defining clinical feature is its attachment to the overlying epidermis.
56. One of the following is true about malignant melanoma:
A. Amelanotic Type is More Aggressive Than Pigmented Type B. Staging is According to the Size of the Tumour C. it is Found Exclusively in the Skin D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A. Amelanotic Type is More Aggressive Than Pigmented Type
Explanation: Amelanotic melanoma (lacking pigment) often carries a worse prognosis primarily because it is harder to diagnose early. Staging is primarily based on the Breslow thickness (depth of invasion) rather than simple horizontal size. It can also occur in the eye, meninges, and mucous membranes.
57. After phagocytosis by neutrophils, micro-organisms are killed by:
A. Lysozyme B. Complement System C. Lymphokines D. Antibodies
Correct Answer: A. Lysozyme
Explanation: Once a microbe is engulfed into a phagolysosome, Lysozymes and other hydrolytic enzymes, along with reactive oxygen species (the respiratory burst), are used for intracellular killing. Complement and antibodies are extracellular mediators that help in opsonization.
58. One of these about Anaphylaxis is false:
A. Occurs 24 Hours After the Initial Stimulus B. Causes Eosinophilia C. Causes Degranulation of Basophils and Mast Cells D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A. Occurs 24 Hours After the Initial Stimulus
Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a Type I Hypersensitivity reaction, which is immediate, occurring within minutes of exposure to the allergen. Delayed reactions (Type IV) take 24–72 hours.
59. Special stain for Amyloid is:
A. Congo Red B. Aniline blue C. Prussian Blue D. Haemosiderin
Correct Answer: A. Congo Red
Explanation: Congo Red is the definitive stain for amyloid. Under polarized light, amyloid stained with Congo Red shows a characteristic apple-green birefringence.
60. The following are true about chemicals involved in allergic reaction:
A. Thromboxane – Leukocyte Activation B. Prostaglandin-2 – Vasodilatation C. Platelet-activating Factor – Leukocyte Activation D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: These are all lipid-derived mediators of inflammation. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and pain; PAF is a potent activator of leukocytes; and Thromboxanes contribute to platelet and leukocyte dynamics.
61. One of these is false about Granulation tissue:
A. is A Feature of Wound Healing B. Contains Fibroblasts C. Contains Thin-walled Capillaries D. Often Contains Granuloma
Correct Answer: D. Often Contains Granuloma
Explanation: Granulation tissue (involved in healing) and a Granuloma (a specific type of chronic inflammation found in diseases like TB) are entirely different things. Granulation tissue is characterized by angiogenesis (capillaries) and fibroblasts.
62. Constituents of emboli may include:
A. Air B. Amniotic Fluid C. Tumour D. All of Above
Correct Answer: D. All of Above
Explanation: An embolus is any detached intravascular solid, liquid, or gaseous mass. While most are dislodged thrombi (thromboembolism), they can also consist of air bubbles, amniotic fluid, fat, or tumor fragments.
63. The following substances increase the capillary permeability in acute inflammation except:
A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Angiotensin D. Complement proteins
Correct Answer: C. Angiotensin
Explanation: Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor involved in blood pressure regulation. Histamine, Bradykinin, and Complement fragments (C3a, C5a) are all mediators that increase vascular permeability during inflammation.
64. Opsonization:
A. is Mediated by Complement Components. B. Enhances Phagocytosis C. Involves Mainly the Fc Portion of the Immunoglobulins D. All of Above
Correct Answer: D. All of Above
Explanation: Opsonization “tags” a microbe for destruction. The process uses C3b (complement) and IgG (antibodies). Macrophages have receptors for the Fc portion of these antibodies, which significantly enhances phagocytosis.
65. The following promotes wound healing except:
A. Macrophages B. Myofibroblast C. Platelets D. Apocrine Cells
Correct Answer: D. Apocrine Cells
Explanation: Apocrine cells are specialized sweat gland cells and have no role in tissue repair. Macrophages clear debris, Platelets release growth factors, and Myofibroblasts are essential for wound contraction.
66. The following are used in grading a tumour except:
A. Mitotic Index B. Necrosis C. Calcification D. Atrophy
Correct Answer: D. Atrophy
Explanation: Grading evaluates the degree of malignancy based on cell appearance. High mitotic index and presence of necrosis indicate a high grade (more aggressive). Atrophy is an adaptive cell response to decreased workload and is not used to grade neoplasms.
67. TNFα (tumour necrosis factor alpha):
A. is Produced by T Lymphocytes B. is Produced by Macrophages C. Causes Hypercoagulability D. Does not cause necrosis of tumor cells
Correct Answer: B. is Produced by Macrophages
Explanation: TNFα is primarily secreted by activated macrophages. It plays a major role in systemic inflammation (acute phase response) and, at high levels, can contribute to hypercoagulability and septic shock.
68. Intracellular messengers include all except:
A. Cyclic Guanosine Monophosphate (cGMP) B. Inositol Triphosphate (IP3) C. Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate (cAMP) D. GABA
Correct Answer: D. GABA
Explanation: GABA is an extracellular neurotransmitter. cGMP, IP3, and cAMP are classic second messengers that relay signals from the cell surface to the interior of the cell.
69. The following are true about inositol triphosphate (IP3):
A. it is Increased by Activation of α1-adrenoreceptors B. it is Produced by the Action of Phospholipase C, A Membrane Bound Enzyme C. All of Above D. None of above
Correct Answer: C. All of Above
Explanation: When an α1-receptor is activated, it triggers Phospholipase C, which cleaves membrane lipids to produce IP3 and DAG. IP3 then causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum.
70. The following statements about tuberculosis are true:
A. Caseous Necrosis is Only Seen in Primary Lesions B. Langhans Cell Presence is A Must for Histological Diagnosis. C. Viable Bacteria May Be Found in Calcified Lesions. D. Occur Only in Lung Tissue
Correct Answer: C. Viable Bacteria May Be Found in Calcified Lesions.
Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis can remain dormant (latent) inside old, calcified granulomas for years. Langhans giant cells are characteristic but not strictly “required” for diagnosis if other features like caseous necrosis and acid-fast bacilli are present.
71. Which of the following is LEAST likely to regenerate?
A. Cardiac muscle B. Renal tubular cells C. Hepatocytes D. Fibroblasts
Correct Answer: A. Cardiac muscle
Explanation: Cardiac muscle consists of permanent cells that have almost no regenerative capacity in adults. Injuries like a myocardial infarction result in scarring (fibrosis) rather than regeneration. Hepatocytes and renal tubular cells are stable cells that can regenerate if the basement membrane is intact.
72. The newly formed, highly vascularized, connective tissue with a component of acute inflammatory exudation is known as:
A. Purulent exudate B. Granulation tissue C. Scar D. Granuloma
Correct Answer: B. Granulation tissue
Explanation: Granulation tissue is the essential preliminary tissue for wound healing, containing many new capillaries (highly vascularized) and fibroblasts. It should not be confused with a granuloma.
73. Healing by first intention is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Well-apposed skin edges B. Epithelial proliferation C. Abundant granulation tissue D. A few inflammatory cells
Correct Answer: C. Abundant granulation tissue
Explanation: Healing by first intention (primary union) occurs in clean, surgical incisions where edges are well-apposed. Because the gap is small, only a minimal amount of granulation tissue and scarring is required. Abundant granulation tissue is characteristic of second intention healing.
74. A biopsy is performed on a dog with a mass lesion that proves to be a neoplasm. Of the following histopathologic findings, the one that best indicates that a neoplasm is malignant is:
A. Pleomorphism B. Invasion C. Atypia D. Increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
Correct Answer: B. Invasion
Explanation: While pleomorphism and high N/C ratios suggest malignancy, the most definitive hallmark of a malignant tumor is its ability to invade surrounding tissues and metastasize.
75. Each of the following is an example of apoptosis except:
A. Elimination of epithelial cells from the GIT B. Destruction of hepatocytes in chronic hepatitis C. Deletion of autoreactive T cells from thymus D. Stroke caused by thrombosis of middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: D. Stroke caused by thrombosis of middle cerebral artery
Explanation: A stroke caused by a lack of blood supply (ischemia/infarction) results in necrosis (specifically liquefactive necrosis in the brain), which is an uncontrolled, inflammatory cell death. The other options are examples of programmed, physiological or pathological cell death (apoptosis).
77. Which virus is involved in development of feline sarcoids:
a. herpes virus
b. pox virus
C. Papilloma virus
D. Leukaemia virus
Correct Answer: C. Papilloma virus
Explanation: Feline sarcoids (uncommon skin tumors in cats) are associated with bovine papillomavirus (BPV) type 14. These tumors are typically found on the head, neck, or digits and are believed to be transmitted through contact with cattle or bovine products.
78. Canine colorectal tumors show dysregulation in which of the following:
A. $\beta$-Catenin
B. E-Cadherin
C. p53
D. All Of Above
Correct Answer: D. All Of Above
Explanation: Canine colorectal tumors share many molecular similarities with human colorectal cancer. This includes the Wnt/$\beta$-catenin signaling pathway, loss of cell adhesion via E-cadherin dysregulation, and mutations in the p53 tumor suppressor gene.
79. Thick hyalinized collagen fibers characterize which of the following canine tumors:
A. Fibroma
B. fibroadnexal dysplasia
C. Keloidal fibroma
D. All Of Above
Correct Answer: C. Keloidal fibroma
Explanation: A Keloidal fibroma is a specific variant of fibroma characterized histologically by the presence of exceptionally thick, hyalinized, eosinophilic collagen fibers (keloidal collagen). These are distinct from the finer fibers seen in standard fibromas.
80. The origin of histiocytic sarcomas are most likely:
A. Reticular-endothelial cells
B. B lymphocytes
C. Myeloid dendritic cells
D. Neutrophils
Correct Answer: C. Myeloid dendritic cells
Explanation: Histiocytic sarcomas are aggressive malignant neoplasms. Modern immunohistochemistry has demonstrated that these tumors most commonly originate from myeloid dendritic cells (specifically interstitial dendritic cells), rather than macrophages or lymphocytes.